SEJPME I&…. 100% . Grade A.

SEJPME I&…. 100% 401. Military member to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. a) True b) False 402. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is known as _____. It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be seen in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors. a) Physical fitness b) Psychological health c) Post-traumatic stress disorder d) Personal awareness 403. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. a) True b) False 404. Symptoms of _____ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, mental problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting. a) Post-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological trauma dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury 405. Typical signs of _____ include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties. a) Port-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury 406. Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service. a) Teamwork b) Tolerance c) Resilience d) Unity of effort 407. ¬¬¬¬_____ is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force. a) Wounded Warrior Program b) Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program c) Physical Fitness Testing (PFT) Program d) Performance Evaluation Program 408. The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success. a) True b) False 409. Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others' experiences - both positive and negative. a) seek out professional assistance b) know all of the facts c) acknowledge our own prejudice d) critically think about 410. Concussion is a term many service members prefer to use instead of "brain injury" when discussing head injuries (mild traumatic brain injuries or mTBI). a) True b) False 411. U.S. Law, Title 10, USC, Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Service Chiefs c) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff d) Secretary of Defense 412. U.S. military service is based on values that U.S. military experience has proven to be vital for operational success. These values adhere to the most idealistic societal norms, are common to all the Services, and represent the essence of military professionalism. The five values we discussed that entail "Joint Service" consist of: duty, honor, courage, integrity, and selfless service. a) True b) False 413. Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases. a) True b) False 414. The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. a) experience b) integrity c) competence d) physical courage 415. The ¬¬¬¬¬_____ focuses on planning and execution of operations using operational art to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means. a) Strategic level b) Operational level c) Tactical level d) Political level 416. Read the following scenario, and as you read it, think about the 12 Principles of Joint Operations. Each principle applies to the described situation in some capacity, but consider their relative importance for this particular scenario. In the boxes provided below, indicate whether the principle listed is MOST RELEVANT or LEAST RELEVANT to the scenario by typing in your response. A sometimes-ally of the United States requests U.S. support in maintaining stability during an insurgent uprising. The U.S. agrees to lead a multinational peace-keeping force in the volatile country, since supporting the legitimate government adds stability to a key strategic region. The insurgents comprise of a number of radical groups that follow a shared political ideology and collectively seek economic control within the region. They appear to be funded by narcotics cartels and organized crime syndicates in Central and Northern South America. The insurgents use a variety of disruptive, irregular warfare tactics to exert their influence, including the use of Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs), ambushes on peace-keeping forces, civilian kidnapping, graft, and civilian extortion. U.S. forces have also detected numerous cyber-attacks that appear to originate from insurgent sources; however, none of these have been successful a) Objective LEAST RELEVANT b) Offensive LEAST RELEVANT c) Mass LEAST RELEVANT d) Economy of Force MOST RELEVANT e) Maneuver LEAST RELEVANT f) Unity of Command MOST RELEVANT g) Security MOST RELEVANT h) Surprise LEAST RELEVANT i) Simplicity LEAST RELEVANT j) Restraint MOST RELEVANT k) Perseverance MOST RELEVANT l) Legitimacy MOST RELEVANT Which principles did you rank as among the most important? Explain why. Restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy were ranked among the most important because these principles directly support irregular warfare conditions, such as those described in the scenario. Security was also ranked highly, because the scenario opposition forces use irregular means, such as IEDs and ambush attacks. Next, Economy of Force was ranked among the top principles because stability operations must be carried out with the upmost efficiency, so that the U.S. achieves an optimal return on investment. Finally, because the mission involves a multinational coalition, Unity of Command takes on greater priority; coordination among forces becomes more challenging as a greater number of units, agencies, and countries become involved. Which principles did you rank as among the least important? Explain why. Having a clear objective is vital. However, since the strategic objective in this scenario is to maintain stability in an ally's country, developing more detailed operational objectives takes on comparatively less significance. Similarly, since the mission involves stabilization, versus aggression, taking offensive action becomes less important, as is the element of surprise, the exploitation of maneuver, and the concentration of a large mass of combat power. Finally, while simplicity is important (particularly in multinational operations), it is less vital in the described scenario; given the complexity of the situation, simple responses may not be sufficient. 417. The following image is a concept map for you to review. Note that there are several empty boxes on the map labeled "Question 1" through "Question 5". In the boxes provided below, choose the proper concept for each of these empty boxes by typing in your response in the space provided. Question 1: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Directing, Operations, Security, Communications, or Financing): Security Question 2: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Share information, Reporting an event, Establishing mutual security, Communicating with leaders in the area, or Counterinsurgency): Share Information Question 3: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Joint Communications, Joint Maneuvers, Joint Action Planning, Joint Matters, or Joint Forces): Joint Matters vs Joint Force Question 4: This is the purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service's capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects of both, with the degree of interdependence varying with specific circumstances. (Joint Agreement, Joint Independence, Joint Interdependence, Joint Dependence, or Joint Cooperation): Joint Interdependence Question 5: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Associate, Develop, Refine, Collaborate, or Synchronize): Synchronize 418. The _____ system provides many things, including means by which the President and the SecDef can receive warnings and intelligence so that accurate and timely decisions can be made. Nuclear Command and Control Defense Continuity National Military Command Joint Force Commander’s Communication 419. Think about the module you just completed. What are three things you already knew about this material, three things you learned, and three things you would like to learn more about. Record your answers below: I already knew 1. 2. 3. I just learned 1. 2. 3. I would like to learn more 1. 2. 3. 420. As an example of General vs. Specialized Forces, Navy and Air Force Service members, accustomed to working with enlisted personnel who are specialized technicians, may approach joint staff work from a more _____ perspective than that of their ground Service member counterparts. a) Technical or managerial b) Centralized c) Static d) Assessing 421. A _____ is a series of related major operations aimed at achieving strategic and operational objectives within a given time and space. a) mission b) campaign c) function d) engagement 422. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but through preventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners. a) Provide a stabilizing presence b) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges c) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent d) Deter and defeat aggression 423. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments. a) Specified Combatant Command b) Unified Combatant Command c) Subordinate Unified Command d) Joint Task Force 424. _____ is the employment of available weapons and other systems to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target. a) Movement and maneuver b) Command and control c) Joint fires d) Sustainment 425. A functional Component Command has many favorable factors associated with it, including reduced span of control, integrated planning, unity of effort, and _____. a) control over the scheme of maneuver b) responsible for service-specific functions c) comprised of service forces d) decreased combat efficiency 426. Differences between the Services in career paths leading up to a joint assignment may surprise new staff Service members in joint assignments. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? a) Prior experience working with senior officers vs. little or none b) Centralized vs. decentralized approach c) Static vs. dynamic mission sets d) General vs. specialized enlisted forces 427. _____ are the broad and enduring purposes for which the Services and the Combatant commands (or CCMDs) were established by law. a) Functions b) Roles c) Organizations d) Responsibilities 428. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to conduct a sustainable pace of presence operations abroad, including rotational deployments and bilateral and multilateral training exercises. a) Deter and defeat aggression b) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent c) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges d) Provide a stabilizing presence 430. Some services have an emphasis that vacillates between combat, law enforcement, and safety patrols. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? a) centralized vs. decentralized approach b) base-centric vs. ship-centric c) static vs. dynamic mission sets d) size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility 431. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is established by unified combatant commanders, and conducts operations on continuing basis using specified criteria. a) Specified Combatant Command b) Unified Combatant Command c) Joint Task Force d) Subordinate Unified Command 432. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to maintain an arsenal capable of deterring potential adversaries and to assure U.S. allies and other security partners that they can count on America's security commitments. a) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges b) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent c) Deter and defeat aggression d) Provide a stabilizing presence 433. The _____ exercise ADCON through their respective Service Chiefs over the Service. a) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Functional Combatant Commanders c) Secretaries of the Military Departments d) Combatant Commanders 434. Technology is often applied against what common analyst concern? a) Information overload b) CCIR management c) Subjective assessments d) Replacing cross staff collaboration 435. Which of the following statements highlights the critical features of intelligence? a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances b) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects c) Informs decisions by illuminating the differences in available courses of action d) Contributes to or shapes the commander’s decision making process 436. Analysis is a synthesis of quantitate analysis and qualitative judgement and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations. a) True b) False 437. What is the primary role of the joint force J2? a) To inform the commander b) To analyze data c) To collect data and relate data from a wide spectrum into usable information d) To manage collection assets to maximize data collection across the operational environment 438. Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply) a) Support a predictive estimation of the situation b) Understand adversary capabilities and intentions c) Visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE 439. Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements (select all that apply) a) PIRs are subject for which there is a need to collect information or produce intelligence b) Staff must be aware of intelligence requirements of higher, adjacent, subordinate and supporting elements c) The JFC’s PIRs should prioritize the most urgent intelligence requirements. d) All of the above 440. After intelligence requirements are established, the staff reviews existing databases for answers to requirements. Then, if the intelligence requirement does not exist, the _____. a) Staff issues a request for information b) Staff collects information themselves c) Staff rejects JFC’s PIR d) JFC refines the PIR to match available intelligence 441. What is the definition of collection requirements management? a) Matching intelligence collection requirements with appropriate collection capabilities b) Analyzing the priority intelligence requirements against existing elements of essential information] c) Matching the commander’s critical information requirements with the other intelligence operations d) Synchronizes the timing of collection with the operational scheme of maneuver and with other intelligence operations 442. Why does collection planning require the ability to call on a variety of collection sources? a) To allow flexible tasking of assets b) To minimize the effects of enemy deception c) To ensure subordinate units maintain situational awareness of PIRs d) To provide spare assets on call in event of cancellations 443. Doctrinal, manning, and organizational considerations are what part of the joint intelligence architecture planning process? a) Systems architecture planning b) Operational architecture planning c) Technical architecture planning d) Logistical architecture planning 444. Intelligence dissemination requirements and procedures must be coordinated through the _____. a) Communications directorate of the J6 b) Joint force command J3 c) Joint force command J2 d) Joint Collection Management Board 445. What role(s) is responsible for providing maps, charts, digitized products, and precise geodetic coordinates? a) The Intelligence Officer (J2) b) The Geospatial Information and Service Officer c) The Intelligence Analysts and Targeteers d) The Collection Managers 446. The joint intelligence preparation of the environment (JPOE) consists of four steps. Step 1 Analyze the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment Step 2 Describe the impact of the operational environment on the adversary and friendly courses of actions (COAs) Step 3 Evaluate the capabilities of adversary forces operating in the operational environment Step 4 Determine and describe potential adversary COAs and civilian activities that might impact military operations 447. Dissemination of information can sometimes be defined by a strategy called Push and Pull. Pull refers to which of the following: a) Involves direct electronic access to databases, intelligence files, or other repositories by intelligence organizations at all levels b) Refers to validating information from multiple sources c) Allows the higher echelons to move intelligence down to satisfy existing lower echelon requirements or to relay other relevant information to the lower level. d) Indicates information that is pulled from raw data that cannot be validated 448. Intelligence definitions: g. Warning Intelligence – Focuses on the opportunities to counter and alter only those threats that have detrimental effects for the U.S. (including U.S. military or political decision cycles, infrastructure, COA, or loss of governance). Provides a distinct communication to a decision maker about threats against U.S. security, interests, or citizens; carries a sense of urgency, implying the decision maker should take action to deter or mitigate the threat's impact. a. Current Intelligence – Involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. Involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. h. General Military Intelligence – Supports the requirements to quickly respond to differing crisis situations with corresponding intelligence spanning the globe. Focuses on the military capabilities of foreign countries and organizations to include non-state actors, and other topics that could affect potential US or multinational military operations. f. Target Intelligence - Identifies and nominates specific COGs and HVTs that, if exploited in a systematic manner, will create the desired effects and support accomplishment of the commander’s objectives. Portrays and locates the components of a target or target complex, networks, and support infrastructure, and indicates its vulnerability and relationship to the enemy Centers of Gravity (COG); consists of analysis of physical and virtual attributes and signatures as well as Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) resulting from the application of lethal or non-lethal military force. b. Scientific and Technical Intelligence - Comprises characteristics, capabilities, vulnerabilities, and limitations of all weapon systems, subsystems, and associated material, as well as related research and development. Examines foreign developments in basic and applied sciences and technologies with warfare potential, particularly enhancements to weapon systems; addresses overall weapon systems, tactics analysis, and equipment effectiveness. d. Counterintelligence – Analyzes the threats posed by foreign intelligence and security services, and the intelligence activities if non-state actors such as organized crime, terrorist groups, and drug traffickers. Information gathered and activities conducted to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt, or protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations, or persons, or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities. e. Estimative Intelligence – Reaches beyond descriptions of adversary capabilities or reporting of enemy activity to forecast the unknown based on an analysis of known facts using pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability techniques. Forecasts of current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations; includes a description of relevant actors' capabilities, and reporting of their activities, and it analyzes known factors using techniques such as pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability to address unresolved variables. c. Identity Intelligence – Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and reputational information related to individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. 449. What level of intelligence is produced for the President, Congress, Secretary of Defense, senior military leaders, and combatant commanders? a) Doctrinal b) National strategic c) National security d) Theater strategic 450. An intelligence report is received by the JFC detailing the capabilities and safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent? a) Tactical intelligence b) Theater strategic intelligence c) Operational intelligence d) Human intelligence 451. To be successful, a joint force commander must be able to influence and coordinate a diverse coalition of joint and multinational forces as well as civilian agencies and groups. What are some of the civilian groups the FRC must consider? Select all that apply. a) Nongovernmental organizations b) State and local militias c) Multinational forces d) Host nation agencies 452. Prior to planning for operations in support of the JFC OPLAN, a briefing is presented to the planning staff concerning the environmental conditions, layout of adversarial forces and their relationship with rural communities and leaders, as well as the history of relationship between the local population and foreigners. Which one of the ten principles of intelligence does this represent? a) Prioritization b) Collaboration c) Integrity d) Synchronization 453. Assuming the truism that intelligence is imperfect, what is the best way to minimize the obstacles to achieve a high degree of fidelity in the products of intelligence? a) Anticipating the changing operational environment and focusing collection efforts to support ongoing operations54. b) Collaborating with allies and coalition partners who posses niche expertise and alternative perspectives that compliment joint force intelligence environment c) Staffing efforts to achieve a mix of skills and characteristics that enable them to remain responsive to a changing environment d) Constantly strive to maintain the highest possible standards of excellence 454. Which of the following intelligence principles is described as the process of collecting and examining information from available sources and intelligence disciplines to derive as complete an assessment as possible. a) Collaborative b) Unity of effort c) Fusion d) Synchronization 455. Principles of intelligence: Synchronization – Requires that all intelligence sources and methods be applied in concert with the operations plan and operations order. Prediction – Vulnerable to incomplete information and adversary deception, but should never be avoided because it helps JFCs determine enemy intentions and capabilities. Collaboration – Relies on unhindered access to and sharing of all relevant information and can take many forms such as competitive analysis, brain storming, and federation. Fusion - Relies in a finished intelligence product that provides the most accurate and complete picture possible of what is known about an activity. 456. Identify the national intelligence member that has overall responsibility for intelligence support to the President and the day-to-day management of the intelligence community. a) Director of the Central Intelligence Agency b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence c) Director of National Intelligence d) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency 457. Which of the following national intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence? a) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence c) Director of National Intelligence d) Joint Staff Directorate for Intelligence, J2 458. Which of the following intelligence communities is responsible for providing intelligence support in areas such as human factors analysis, counterterrorism, personal recovery, and noncombatant evacuation operations? a) Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) b) National Security Agency (NSA) c) Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) d) Central Security Service (CSS) 459. Which of the following non-DoD intelligence communities supports HUMINT collection, all source analysis, and political, economic, and biographic intelligence? a) Department od State (DOS) Bureau of Intelligence and Research b) Department of Energy (DOE) c) Federal Bureau Investigation (FBI) d) Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) 460. The _____ is the primary intelligence organization that provides support to the combatant commands at the operational and tactical levels. a) National Intelligence Support Team (NIST) b) Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC) c) Defense Joint Intelligence Operations Center (DJOC) d) Joint Intelligence Support Element (JISE) 461. The intelligence component of the National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center (NJIOC) provides planning, management, and infrastructure for intelligence working groups and intelligence task forces that provide direct intelligence support during major conflicts. a) True b) False 462. JIPOE Steps: DIA – Intelligence support provided includes, but is not limited to, all-source military analysis, human factors analysis, HUMINT, MASINT, MEDINT, CI, counterterrorism, chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear counterproliferation, counterdrug operations, and personnel recovery NSA/CSS – A unified organization that provides for the SIGNIT mission of the U.S. to ensure the protection of national security systems for all departments and agencies of the U.S. Government NGA – Provides timely, relevant and accurate GEOINT support to IMINT, geospatial information, national imagery collection management, commercial imagery, imagery-derived MSAINT, and some meteorological and oceanographic data and information NRO – Responsible for integrating unique and innovative space-based reconnaissance technologies and the engineering, development, acquisition, and operation of space reconnaissance systems and related intelligence activities 463. Joint intelligence planning supports joint operation planning and results in the production of what three products? a) Dynamic Threat Assessment b) Annex B: Intelligence c) Contingency Plan d) National Intelligence Support Plan 464. Advance scouts report that a key bridge crossing is being defended by two tank platoons supported by a reinforced infantry brigade. Which of the following type of intelligence does this represent? a) National b) Operational c) Tactical d) Theater strategic 465. What principle of intelligence is most susceptible to incomplete information and enemy deception efforts? a) Synchronization b) Prediction c) Fusion d) Agility 466. This intelligence product category forecasts current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations. a) Target Intelligence b) Current Intelligence c) Estimative Intelligence d) Warning Intelligence 467. Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? (Select all that apply.) a) Assesses the characteristics of the adversary's decision-making process and identifies weaknesses that may be exploited b) Produces threat assessments on a continuing basis to help the commander create or exploit opportunities to accomplish friendly force objectives c) Analyzes the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment d) Ensures that critical intelligence is disseminated appropriately in a timely manner to the joint force commanders (JFCs), staff, and components 468. The JTF J2 should have personnel knowledgeable in foreign disclosure policy and procedures and should obtain necessary foreign disclosure authorization from DIA as soon as possible. a) True b) False 469. Which of the following roles must be well versed with timelines required to complete a required product and able to obtain the aid of external resources in acquiring needed intelligence? a) J2 Collection Manager b) Intelligence Analysts c) Targeteers d) J2 470. Collection activities acquire and extract data from the operational environment such that Processing and Exploitation can convert that data into information to be used during Analysis and Production to refine into _____ to satisfy Requests for Information (RFI) or the commander's Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR). a) intelligence b) information c) data fee d) translation 471. What two features distinguish intelligence from information? a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances b) Contributes to or shapes the commander's decision making process c) Consists of the synthesis of quantitative analysis and qualitative judgment with an assigned degree of coincidence to the analytical conclusion d) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects 472. The Commander's Critical Information Requirements represent both Friendly Force Information requirements and _____, which are derived from the intelligence organization and vetted across staff. a) identified collection gaps b) mission analysis identified requests for information c) priority intelligence requirements (PIR) d) threat assessments 473. Military operations vary in scope, purpose, and _____ across a range that spans from military engagement to major operations and campaigns. a) Conflict intensity b) End state c) Expected outcome d) Contingencies 474. _____ is the protection of U.S. sovereignty, territory, domestic population, and critical defense infrastructure against external threats and aggressive or other treats as directed by the President. a) Civil support b) Peace operations c) Homeland defense d) Combating terrorism 475. By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can better integrate and _____ subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose. a) Visualize b) Synchronize c) Mitigate d) Organize 476. Which of the following are effective means to achieve deterrence? (Select all that apply.) a) Foster a climate of peaceful cooperation b) Ensure joint operations forces are ready to conduct decisive operations c) Develop a Security Cooperation Plan d) Remove forces from area 477. _____prevents an adversarial action by presenting a credible threat of counteraction. This activity can occur during both peace and war. a) Diplomacy b) Deterrence c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Security cooperation 478. Which of the following statements accurately reflect crisis and limited contingency operations? (Select all that apply,) a) Are part of the JFC’s OPLAN b) Are used to restore stability in a nation where internal conflict threatens regional stability c) Must achieve a very specific or operational objective d) Are conducted to achieve tactical objectives 479. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities, delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____. a) Non-combat evacuation b) Foreign internal defense c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Military support 480. A(n) _____, such as foreign humanitarian assistance, can be a major operation if the combination of size, scope, and duration requires the commander to phase the operation as a set of tasks, activities, and missions over time. a) Interdiction b) Noncombat operation c) Campaign d) Combat operation 481. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations. a) Defensive b) Offensive c) Planning d) Stability 482. Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.) a) Organizing and training b) Conduct of rehearsals c) Stability operations d) Balance and simultaneity 483. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary’s will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces. a) SOF b) USSOCOM c) CA d) FDO 484. The “Seize the Initiative” phase of joint operations seeks decision advantage by using all available elements of combat power to: (Select all that apply.) a) Seize and maintain the initiative b) Deny the enemy the opportunity to achieve its objectives c) Generate in the enemy a sense of inevitable failure and defeat d) Denounce enemy military by using propaganda to turn public against their military or leadership 485. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they chose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describes a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces combat power and protects sustainment functions? a) Linear operations in contiguous AOs b) Linear operations in noncontiguous AOs c) Nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs d) Nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs 486. During stability operations, it is critical to avoid inadvertently legitimizing an individual or organization in a country where no government exists. a) True b) False 487. During the enable civil authority phase of operations, the JFC may be required to transfer responsibility of operations to another as the termination criteria. a) True b) False 488. Using the following image of the Joint Operations Phasing Model, provide a response (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize) for each of the phases below labeled "1" through "6". a) Phase 1: Deter b) Phase 2: Seize c) Phase 3: Stabilize d) Phase 4: Dominate e) Phase 5: Enable f) Phase 6: Shape 489. Identify the term (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize), that corresponds to each of the definitions below. a) This phase, while preparatory in nature, may include mobilization and initial deployment into a theater. Deter b) This phase includes denying the enemy its initial objectives. Seize c) This phase may require the joint force to perform limited local governance, and integrate the efforts of other supporting inter-organizational partners until legitimate local entities are functioning. Stabilize d) This phase's success depends on overmatching enemy capabilities at the critical time and place. Dominate e) This phase is focused on helping the civil authority stabilize and begin to administer services to the populace. Enable f) This phase is executed continuously, and may mitigate conditions that could lead to a crisis. Shape 490. A _______ may be appropriate when the contemplated military operations exceed the scope of a single major operation. a) coalition b) campaign c) large-scale combat operation d) strategic objective 491. Campaigns are _____. a) the most extensive of joint operations b) service oriented c) independently embarked on d) low in resource requirements 492. Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase. a) dominate b) seize c) shape d) deter 493. _____ generally are governed by various directives and agreements and do not require a joint operation plan (OPLAN) or operation order (OPORD) for execution. a) Advance measures b) Continuity of operations c) Commitment of forces d) Engagement activities 494. If the crisis is caused by a(n) _____ that threatens regional stability, U.S. forces may intervene to restore or guarantee stability. a) embargo b) credible threat c) internal conflict d) external threat 495. Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which required _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission. a) combat operations b) deterrence activities c) security cooperation d) major campaigns 496. _____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency. a) Commitment of forces b) Engagement activities c) Continuity of operations d) Advance measures 497. _____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to, and recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents. a) Civil support b) Recovery operations c) Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear consequence management d) Homeland defense 498. _____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance. a) Peace operations b) Recovery operations c) Stability operations d) Foreign humanitarian assistance 499. _____ is/are DoD's unified effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the U.S. Government. a) Foreign humanitarian assistance b) Security force assistance c) Civic assistance programs d) Stability operations 500. _____ operations can include the provision of emergency infrastructure reconstruction. a) Offensive b) Defensive c) Stability d) Planning 501. The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation. a) crisis response b) peacekeeping operation c) antiterrorism d) interdiction 502. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities, delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____. a) foreign humanitarian assistance b) non-combat evacuation c) foreign internal defense d) military support 503. _____ is generally limited in scope and duration because it is intended to supplement or complement efforts of civil authorities or agencies with the primary responsibility for providing assistance. a) Civil defense b) Foreign internal defense c) Deterrence d) Foreign humanitarian assistance 504. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations. a) planning b) defensive c) offensive d) stability 505. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary's will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces. a) FDO b) CA c) SOF d) USSOCOM 506. U. S. Forces may be required to engage in several types of joint operations simultaneously, across a range of military operations. Commanders combine and sequence offensive, defensive, and _____ operations to achieve objectives. a) deterrence b) crisis response c) stability d) contingency 507. Supporting the conditions for economic reconstruction is an action in the _____ phase. a) shape b) stabilize c) deter d) enable 508. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they choose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describe a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces and where the forward line of own troops focus combat power and protect sustainment functions? a) linear operations in noncontiguous AOs b) nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs c) nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs d) linear operations in contiguous AOs 509. _____ are DoD activities, normally in support of the United States Agency for International Development or the Department of State, conducted outside the U.S., its territories, and possessions, to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation. a) Stability operations b) Civil support c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Foreign internal defense 510. Military engagement occurs as part of _____, but also extends to interaction with domestic civilian authorities. a) civil defense b) planning c) security cooperation d) counterinsurgency 511. If the crisis revolves around _____ to a regional partner, combat commanders employ joint forces to deter aggression and signal U.S. commitment a) internal conflict b) credible threats c) coup d'etat d) external threats 512. Joint Logisticians coordinate sustained logistic readiness through the integrating functions of _____. a) Translating strategic guidance, developing operational concepts, and assessing logistic plans b) Planning, executing, and controlling joint logistic operations c) Unity of effort, environment-wide visibility, and rapid and precise response d) Organizing for execution, achieving situational awareness, and designating lead Service responsibilities 513. Which of the following key global providers is responsible for recruiting, organizing, supplying, and maintaining ready forces for deployment? a) Services b) Defense Logistics Agency (DLS) Service c) Joint Staff d) USTRANSCOM 514. Which of the following joint logistic imperatives links the mission, commander’s intent, and operational objectives to core logistic capabilities, procedures, and organizations? a) Assessment b) Execution c) Planning d) Control 515. Which of the following statements describes the “supply” functional capability within joint logistics? a) The joint logistician manages supplies and equipment, inventory, and supplier networks b) The joint logistician manages people, material, and transportation c) The join logistician balances Commander’s Critical Information Requirements (CCIRs) with risk, force availability, and unit readiness. d) The logistician develops plans, studies, feasibility, and identifies who is responsible for executing the plan. 516. The purpose if field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False 517. Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR? a) The supported CCDR establishes a collaborative process, whereas the supporting CCDR determines preemployment standards. b) The supported CCDR regulates the transportation flow of support personnel, whereas the supporting CCDR regulates the force flow based on strategic, operational, and tactical control. c) The supported CCDR builds and validates force and movement requirements, whereas the supporting CCDR reports force movement requirements data. 518. Match each core capability with the correct description. Use the following terms to answer questions 1 - 7 below: Logistics Services; Operational contract Support; Health Services Support; Deployment and Distribution; Supply; Maintenance Operations; or Engineering Operations. Question 1: ______ provides managed materiel inventories that are determined through deliberate collaboration with maintenance and distribution providers to optimize the end effect of the supply chain to the warfighter. Supply Question 2: ______ provides life cycle systems readiness capability that enables the requirements, acquisition and sustainment communities to provide systems with optimal availability and reliability to the joint warfighter at best value to the Services. Maintenance Operations Question 3: ______ supports the materiel movement during logistical sustainment of operations. Deployment and Distribution Question 4: ______ promotes individual practices that prevent or correct any human condition that would impair or preclude the joint force from achieving its objectives. Health Services Support Question 5: ______ force multiplier that helps commander integrate, synchronize and direct operations. Engineering Operations Question 6: ______ comprised of disparate activities that enable the global sustainment for military forces. Logistics Services Question 7: ______ensures that the Service is augmented by military and government sources of support, that the support is orchestrated and manage and that visibility is maintained. Operational Contract Support 519. Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment? a) Financial Management b) Religious Ministry c) Human Resources d) Legal Support 520. Which two of the following describe J1 functions? (Select all that apply) a) The J1 participates in all applicable planning and assessment process b) The J1 advises joint logistic requirements and requires various nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) to support all of these c) The J1 coordinates with higher, supporting, and subordinate manpower and personnel directories 521. Once a Mission is defined by the SecDef, the joint task force (jtf) headquarters identifies its personnel requirements. These requirements are summarized in the _____. a) Global Force Management Plan b) Concept of Operations (CONOPS) c) Joint Manning Document d) Operation Plan (OPLAN) 522. The President and SecDef are responsible for assigning forces to specified combatant commands. a) True b) False 523. Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force (JTF) headquarters? a) Joint Force Commander b) Staff Judge Advocate c) SecDef d) Geographic Combatant Commander 524. Staff Judge Advocates (SHAs) are responsible for _____/ (Select all that apply) a) Developing the organizational structure for their sections b) Understanding the legal support requirements of the joint task force (JTF) to which they are assigned c) Identifying the personnel requirements for their sections d) Operating on a sustained 24-hour battle rhythm 525. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 1 – Assignment is: a) SecDef b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff 526. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 2 – Appointment is: a) SecDef b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff 527. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 3 – Allocation is: a) SecDef b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff 528. An environment in which operations may or may not be opposed at any point during deployment by forces or individuals not under the host government’s control in a/an _____environment. a) Uncertain b) Permissive c) Hostile d) Operational 529. Which stage of the protection process assembles and organizes national resources to support national objectives in time of war or any other emergency? a) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) b) Deployment c) Mobilization d) Employment 530. Who is responsible for assigning forces and resources to combatant commands? a) Supporting Combatant Commander b) Commander, Joint Chief of Staff c) Supported Combatant Commander d) SecDef 531. Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrative and logistic support for forces? a) SecDef b) Military Departments c) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) d) Supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) 532. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply) a) Deployment planning b) Mobility c) Redeployment activities d) Movement 533. Which of the following reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) elements are defined as “enabling”? (Select all that apply.) a) Force protection b) Multinational support c) Contract support d) Legal support 534. Redeployment encompasses which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.) a) Planning b) Redeployment activities c) Movement d) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) 535. Which of the following are issues considered during redeployment planning? (Select all that apply.) a) Intelligence preparation b) Protection c) Infrastructure assessment d) Force health protection 536. Which of the following is described as the quality or capability of military forces that permits them to transition from place to place while retaining their ability to fulfill their primary mission? a) Deployment b) Transportability c) Flexibility d) Mobility 537. The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.) a) identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements b) apportion forces to the combatant commander c) develop the most effective solution to a problem d) collect and analyze relevant information 538. The movement phase of deployment is comprised of which of the following three segments? a) POE operations b) maintain, repair, or sustain equipment c) POE to port of debarkation (POD) d) origin to air or sea ports of embarkation (POE) 539. Which of the following is described as the ability to project the military instrument of national power? a) Global force management b) Operation plan (OPLAN) c) Concept of operations (CONOPS) d) Global force projection 540. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.) a) Deployment planning b) Mobility c) Predeployment activities d) Movement 541. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of offloading, marshalling, and transporting personnel, equipment, and materiel? a) Staging b) Reception c) Integration d) Onward movement 542. During which phase of projection are forces and materiel transferred to support another joint force commander's operational requirements? a) Sustainment b) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) c) Deployment d) Redeployment 543. The operational environment is generally described by which of the following conditions? a) tolerant, liberal, and autocratic b) foreign, native, and unrestricted c) strategic, tactical, and dictated d) permissive, uncertain, and hostile 544. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of synchronizing the transfer of capabilities into an operational commander's force? a) Staging b) Onward movement c) Integration d) Reception 545. When identifying support activities during pre-redeployment, redeploying forces _____. a) perform all personnel, supply, and inspection activities b) confirm readiness and available movement dates c) must be supported with medical care, life support, supplies, and materiel d) may move to a designated staging area to prepare 546. 16) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False 17) Which of the following types of plans describes the most probable outcomes of a mission and identifies force requirements? a) Operation plan (OPLAN) b) Crisis Plan c) Concept of operations (CONOPS) d) Contingency Plan 18) The joint logistics environment (JLE) exists within the _____ environment and consists of _____ that affect the employment of logistic capabilities. a) strategic; authorities, logistic providers, and imperatives b) strategic; operation plans, service capabilities, and climates c) operational; conditions, circumstances, and influences d) tactical; situations, provisions, and restrictions 19) Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force headquarters? a) Joint Force Commander b) Geographic Combatant Commander c) Staff Judge Advocate d) SecDef 20) While employed, the Staff Judge Advocate ensures that the joint force commander understands the _____. a) requirements from host nations for a transparent legal environment in which to conduct joint operations b) laws, treaties, and agreements that apply to U.S. relations with the foreign governments and their inhabitants c) cultures and religious beliefs that impact U.S. relationships with the foreign inhabitants d) traffic laws and ports of entry requirements that impact transportation of personnel and materiel into the foreign nation 21) Which stage of the projection process is identified by the movement of forces within the operational areas (OAs), the positioning of forces into a formation for battle, or the relocation of forces and materiel to a different OA? a) Sustainment b) Mobilization c) Deployment d) Redeployment 22) During the joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) phase of redeployment, destination reception refers to _____. a) preparing the force for the next crisis b) recovering the unit's assigned personnel and equipment c) tracking the force to determine exact location of personnel, equipment, and materiel d) transporting forces via a common user or commercial lift from a port of debarkation (POD) to a demobilization station 23) Which of the following describe the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's (CJCS's) responsibilities? (Select all that apply.) a) Monitors the capabilities of United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) b) Prescribes a movement priority system to ensure responsiveness to meet the needs of the combatant commander (CCDR) c) Prepares joint logistic and mobility plans to support joint operation plans (OPLANS) d) Reviews the CCDR's plans and programs to determine adequacy, consistency, acceptability, and feasibility to perform the assigned mission 24) Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR? a) The supported CCDR establishes a collaborative process, whereas the supporting CCDR must prioritize mission, align forces, and consider planned theater distribution. b) The supported CCDR ensures units retain visibility and mobility, whereas the supporting CCDR determines predeployment standards. c) The supported CCDR builds and validates force and movement requirements, whereas the supporting CCDR reports force movement requirements data. d) The supported CCDR regulates the transportation flow of support personnel, whereas the supporting CCDR regulates the force flow based on strategic, operational, and tactical control. 25) Which three of the following when combined are some of the functions that comprise core capabilities of joint logistics? a) battle rhythm b) supply c) situational awareness d) maintenance operations e) health service support 26) Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment? a) Human Resources b) Religious Ministry c) Legal Support d) Financial Management